Quadratic residue and the p-adic numbers
Show that the equation x2=2 has a solution in Z7.
We prove a more generalized form of the problem:
Let p be an odd prime and (a,p)=1 and a be a quadratic residue modulo p, then x2=a has a solution in Zp.
Lemma1 Let F(x) be a polynomial with integer coefficient, then if F(x) is solvable in Z/pnZ for all n, then F(x) is solvable in Zp.
Proof)
Let xn be the solution to F(x) in Z/pnZ. If (xn)∈Zp then we are done; however, it is not true in general. We will have to somehow obtain a p-adic integer from (xn).
First observe that if n≥m, then xn≡0 mod pm because xn≡0 mod pn. In particular, (xn)n≥m has the property that xn≡0 mod pm for all n. Considering (xn) as a sequence in Z, we can always find a subsequence such that all its terms are congruent to 0 mod pn for any n by deleting the first m−1 terms.
Because Z/pZ is finite, again considering (xn) as a sequence, there exists y1∈Z/pZ such that xn≡y1 mod p for infinitely many n. We, then, have a subsequence (x(1)n) of (xn) satisfies the following two properties,
1) x(1)n≡y1 mod p
2) F(x(1)n)≡0 mod p
In particular, F(y1)≡F(x(1)n)≡0 mod p.
Similarly, we take (x(2)n) a subsequence of (x(1)n) satisfying
1) x(2)n≡y2 mod p2
2) F(x(2)n)≡0 mod p2
where y2∈Z/p2Z which is equivalent to infinitely many terms in (x(1)n). The second can be easily obtained by removing the first term of (x(1)n) if necessary. Because x(2)n are terms in (x(1)n), x(2)n≡y1 mod p, thus y2≡y1 mod p. We again have F(y2)≡0 mod p2. Continuing this process we obtain yk∈Z/pkZ such that
1) x(k)n≡yk mod pk
2) F(x(k)n)≡0 mod pk
with F(yk)≡0 mod pk and yk≡yk−1 mod pk−1. This means that y=(yk)∈Zp. Furthermore F(yk)≡0 mod pk is equivalent to saying that F(y)=0 in Zp.
Lemma2 Let p be an odd prime and (a,p)=1. If a is a quadratic residue modulo p, then a is a quadratic residue modulo pn for any n≥1.
The converse is obviously true.
Proof) We assume that x2≡a mod p for some x. This proves the base case for induction. Now suppose that x2≡a mod pn, then x2=a+pnk for some k. We consider an element of the form c=x+pnl. Then
c2=x2+2xpnl+p2nl2=a+pn(k+2xl)+22nl2≡a+pn(k+2xl) mod pn+1
The last equivalence follows from the fact that n>1⇒n2≤2n>n+1. If we can choose an appropriate l such that p|k+2xl, then we are done. Suppose (x,p)≠1 which means that p|x, then p|x2=a+pnk⇒p|a. This leads to a contradiction. Thus (x,p)=1⇒(2x,pn+1)=1 as p is an odd prime. Thus we can let l be congruent to −k(2x)−1. Then c2≡a mod pn hence the result.
If we have a coprime quadratic residue a modulo an odd prime p, then a is a quadratic residue modulo pn for all n by Lemma 2. This is tantamount to saying that F(x)=x2−a has solution in Z/pnZ. By Lemma 1, F(x) has a solution in Zp.
We prove a more generalized form of the problem:
Let p be an odd prime and (a,p)=1 and a be a quadratic residue modulo p, then x2=a has a solution in Zp.
Lemma1 Let F(x) be a polynomial with integer coefficient, then if F(x) is solvable in Z/pnZ for all n, then F(x) is solvable in Zp.
Proof)
Let xn be the solution to F(x) in Z/pnZ. If (xn)∈Zp then we are done; however, it is not true in general. We will have to somehow obtain a p-adic integer from (xn).
First observe that if n≥m, then xn≡0 mod pm because xn≡0 mod pn. In particular, (xn)n≥m has the property that xn≡0 mod pm for all n. Considering (xn) as a sequence in Z, we can always find a subsequence such that all its terms are congruent to 0 mod pn for any n by deleting the first m−1 terms.
Because Z/pZ is finite, again considering (xn) as a sequence, there exists y1∈Z/pZ such that xn≡y1 mod p for infinitely many n. We, then, have a subsequence (x(1)n) of (xn) satisfies the following two properties,
1) x(1)n≡y1 mod p
2) F(x(1)n)≡0 mod p
In particular, F(y1)≡F(x(1)n)≡0 mod p.
Similarly, we take (x(2)n) a subsequence of (x(1)n) satisfying
1) x(2)n≡y2 mod p2
2) F(x(2)n)≡0 mod p2
where y2∈Z/p2Z which is equivalent to infinitely many terms in (x(1)n). The second can be easily obtained by removing the first term of (x(1)n) if necessary. Because x(2)n are terms in (x(1)n), x(2)n≡y1 mod p, thus y2≡y1 mod p. We again have F(y2)≡0 mod p2. Continuing this process we obtain yk∈Z/pkZ such that
1) x(k)n≡yk mod pk
2) F(x(k)n)≡0 mod pk
with F(yk)≡0 mod pk and yk≡yk−1 mod pk−1. This means that y=(yk)∈Zp. Furthermore F(yk)≡0 mod pk is equivalent to saying that F(y)=0 in Zp.
Lemma2 Let p be an odd prime and (a,p)=1. If a is a quadratic residue modulo p, then a is a quadratic residue modulo pn for any n≥1.
The converse is obviously true.
Proof) We assume that x2≡a mod p for some x. This proves the base case for induction. Now suppose that x2≡a mod pn, then x2=a+pnk for some k. We consider an element of the form c=x+pnl. Then
c2=x2+2xpnl+p2nl2=a+pn(k+2xl)+22nl2≡a+pn(k+2xl) mod pn+1
The last equivalence follows from the fact that n>1⇒n2≤2n>n+1. If we can choose an appropriate l such that p|k+2xl, then we are done. Suppose (x,p)≠1 which means that p|x, then p|x2=a+pnk⇒p|a. This leads to a contradiction. Thus (x,p)=1⇒(2x,pn+1)=1 as p is an odd prime. Thus we can let l be congruent to −k(2x)−1. Then c2≡a mod pn hence the result.
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